Bible Study Discussions with Gary Panell

Question: I am not so sure that just using the New King James Version is 100% appropriate. 1 Corinthians 6:9 says nothing about Sodomy in the NIV or in the King James Bible. Although some of the Sins mentioned are in "Sodomy." The other translations do not include all things in Sodomy. Also, you fail to mention Song of Songs, I'm not sure why. Maybe because it conflicts with personal views. Maybe then marital sex is only for procreation. If so then once a woman reaches menopause, or for that matter, male or female impotent, then no sex would be allowed at all. The Bible is very clear that sex throughout all life is OK. Abraham and Sarah were apparently having sex well beyond where they thought they could still have children.

Answer: First, we are not saying anything about sex in marriage between a man and a woman. We are not sure how you got this idea. Of course, God made sex in marriage for more than just procreation; this is clear in Scripture as you said. Second, you cannot just go to one version or another to make your case on a word, you need to go to the Greek in this case. However, you mentioned the NIV which I also use at times, here is what it says: "Do you not know that the wicked will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: Neither the sexually immoral nor idolaters nor adulterers nor male prostitutes nor homosexual offenders nor thieves nor the greedy nor drunkards nor slanders nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God." (1 Cor. 6:9-10 NIV) The term 'homosexual offenders' is referenced with Lev. 18:22, which says: "Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable." (NIV)

In the Greek the word 'MALAKOS,' is translated as 'effeminate' in the KJV. This word means: not simply of a male who practices forms of lewdness, but persons in general, who are guilty of addiction to sins of the flesh, or a man or boy who submits himself to be used sexually by another man.

I hope this helps,
Gary Panell

Follow up to this question: The article that I got this from is yours. It says that oral sex would be Sodomy. My wife and I had been practicing oral sex for 30 Years. She now has given her life to the Lord. I have been saved for 15 Years. She now looks at everything as (it may be sin). I was looking for articles for her. Yours won't work since you use the verse from a bible that uses the word "sodomy." I agree that homosexuality, and all sex between unmarried people is sin. However, I do not believe that all these things are sin between married couples. I believe 1 Corinthians 6:9 would be talking to people that are homosexuals, fornicators and such, not husband and wife. Otherwise, it would seem to conflict with Song of Songs.

Answer: I do believe that oral sex is part of homosexuality, so it is something Christians should not be involved in, This would apply to anal sex as well. Where do you see in Song of Solomon anything about oral or anal sex? There are many things a married person can do in sex beside these activities that relate to homosexual acts. Gary

For more information e-mail me at

To view other questions visit our Interactive Bible Study Page or read some of our Christian Literature at Bible-Christian.org

Please feel free to contact Bible Christian:

Gary Tomás Panell
1211 Pollock Avenue
Zillah, Washington 98953
Email

The articles on this website may be freely copied and distributed. Source credit with a link to bible-christian.org would be appreciated.

Keywords: homosexuality, oral sex, sex in marriage, Song of Solomon